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IBM - C1000-115 - Accurate IBM Cloud Pak for Security 1.x Administrator Valid Exam Sample - Errandsolutions

C1000-115

Exam Code: C1000-115

Exam Name: IBM Cloud Pak for Security 1.x Administrator

Version: V22.75

Q & A: 580 Questions and Answers

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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which process CANNOT be automated in Sales force by a system administrator?
A. Integrating: when information needs to be passed to a different system
B. Updating, when information needs to dynamically change
C. Deleting: when any record needs to be removed from the system
D. Routing: when someone needs to take ownership of an issue
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
What is called a system that is capable of detecting that a fault has occurred and has the ability to correct the fault or operate around it?
A. A fault-tolerant system
B. A fail soft system
C. A failover system
D. A fail safe system
Answer: A
Explanation:
A fault-tolerant system is capable of detecting that a fault has occurred and has the ability to correct the fault or operate around it. In a fail-safe system, program execution is terminated, and the system is protected from being compromised when a hardware or software failure occurs and is detected. In a fail-soft system, when a hardware or software failure occurs and is detected, selected, non-critical processing is terminated.
The term failover refers to switching to a duplicate "hot" backup component in real-time when a hardware or software failure occurs, enabling processing to continue.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security
Architecture and Models (page 196).

NEW QUESTION: 3
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?
A. Private SQL area
B. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
C. User session data
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Stack space
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the server process' PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.
Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
* Program global area (PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.
References:

NEW QUESTION: 4
Which three features are standard on all IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models? (Choose three.)
A. 1GB memory
B. presence sensor
C. ExpressCard slot
D. 80GB SATA II 3.5-inch hard disk drive
E. tabletop mount
F. internal CDROM drive
Answer: B,C,D

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