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    -) /n!, and therefore in this case is equal to (=2

    Exam Code: -) /n!, and therefore in this case is equal to (=2

    Exam Name: 4 * exp(-2))/FACT(4)) = 0.0902.
    Note that CreditRisk+ is the same methodology as the actuarial approach, and requires using the Poisson distribution.

    Version: V22.75

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    You configure a metric of 200 on an IS-IS enabled interface on Router-1. When you examine the routing table entry for that link on another IS-IS device, you see a metric of 67. What would explain this behavior?
    A. Router-1 has a metric multiplier set.
    B. Router-1 has a configured reference bandwidth.
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    D. Router-1 is sending both standard and wide metrics.
    Answer: D

    Refer to the exhibit.
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    Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
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    C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
    D. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
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    F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
    Answer: E,F
    In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.

    Under the actuarial (or CreditRisk+) based modeling of defaults, what is the probability of 4 defaults in a retail portfolio where the number of expected defaults is 2?
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    B. 2%
    C. 4%
    D. 18%
    Answer: A
    The actuarial or CreditRisk+ model considers default as an 'end of game' event modeled by a Poisson distribution. The annual number of defaults is a stochastic variable with a mean of and standard deviation equal to .
    The probability of n defaults is given by (

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